Medicine
Gain insights into human anatomy, diseases, treatments, and medical technologies. This subject is ideal for learners interested in healthcare, medical research, and clinical practices.
Questions Overview
- What is a primary benefit of restorative nursing programs?
A. Improve functional ability and prevent functional decline
B. Replace formalized therapy
C. Complete ADLs to maintain dependence
D. Save time on providing care
- What element of the restorative program should be documented daily?
A. The reason the resident is on the restorative program
B. The goals of the restorative program
C. Total number of restorative nursing care minutes provided
D. If the resident has improved or not
Using Young's Rule, what is the pediatric dose for an 8-year-old child if the adult dose is 250 mg?
A. 50 mg
B. 75 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 125 mg
Using Fried's Rule, what is the pediatric dose for a 24-month-old child if the adult dose is 500 mg?
A. 80 mg
B. 100 mg
C. 120 mg
D. 150 mg
Which is a symptom of lithium toxicity?
A. Diarrhea
B. Dry mouth
C. Increased appetite
D. Elevated mood
Which type of psychiatric medication can cause a dangerous spike in blood pressure if foods containing tyramine are consumed?
A. SSRIs
B. MAOIs
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Anticonvulsants
Which of the following is a serious side effect of benzodiazepine use that must be monitored closely?
A. Dependency
B. Weight gain
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Dry mouth
Which of the following medications is categorized as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Lithium
C. Haloperidol
D. Buspirone
How can paraprofessionals help clients with their medication regimen?
A. Adjust the client's medication if they experience side effects.
B. Provide emotional support and report any concerns to the prescriber.
C. Diagnose the client's symptoms and recommend treatment changes.
D. Allow the client to skip doses if they feel fine.
Which is a second-generation antipsychotic medication?
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Aripiprazole
D. Perphenazine
What is a potentially permanent side effect of antipsychotic medications that requires immediate reporting?
A. Weight gain
B. Dry mouth
Tardive dyskinesia
Fatigue
What should a paraprofessional do if they notice a client experiencing confusion and muscle stiffness after starting a new antidepressant medication?
A. Stop the medication immediately.
B. Inform the client that it is a normal side effect.
C. Ignore the symptoms and observe further.
D. Report it as a possible sign of serotonin syndrome.
Exam: Medical Conditions Associated with Mental Illness
Which of these modifiable risk factors would likely have the greatest impact on increasing life span?
Physical activity
Nutrition
Smoking
Impairment in executive functioning may contribute to difficulty accessing adequate physical healthcare related to:
A. Difficulty making appointments
B. Difficulty planning transportation and arriving on time for appointments
C. Difficulty adhering to treatment recommendations
D. All of the above
Which of the following is a complex disorder consisting of multiple risk factors that promotes cardiovascular disease and overall mortality and morbidity:
A. Obesity Syndrome
B. Metabolic Syndrome
C. Diabetes
D. None of the above
A nurse is monitoring a premature neonate for development of neonatal sepsis. Which assessment finding is an early sign of neonatal sepsis?
A. gastric retention
B. temperature instability
C. hypotension
D. blood in the stool
What is a main disadvantage of requiring the medical examiner to certify death and supervise removal of the body at a roadway incident?
A. The medical examiner can be liable for any response activity that takes place until s/he arrives.
B. Waiting for the medical examiner to arrive decreases the likelihood that the vehicles will remain in "as found" condition.
C. Waiting for the medical examiner to respond can greatly lengthen the clearance time, and thereby expose responders and motorists to secondary incident hazards for a longer period of time.
D. All of the above
The nurse assesses a child with celiac disease. The nurse would most likely note which physical finding?
A. protuberant abdomen
B. periorbital edema
C. tender inguinal lymph nodes
D. enlarged liver
A nurse assesses a client who is 16 days postpartum. The nurse finds that the client's left nipple is cracked and bleeding slightly. The left breast is sore to touch and an area under the breast is firm, painful, and red. The client is also experiencing chills. What is likely causing this breastfeeding problem?
A. plugged breast duct
B. mastitis
C. thrush infection
D. engorgement
The nurse obtains the nursing history from the parent of an infant with suspected intussusception. Which question would be most helpful for the nurse to ask?
A. "What do the stools look like?"
B. "Is your child eating normally?"
C. "When was the last time your child urinated?"
D. "Has your child had any episodes of vomiting?"
E 1
24 Absent gag reflex indicates damage to which of the cranial nerves
A. CN 5 & 7
B. CN 7 & 9
C. CN 4 & 5
D. CN 9 & 10
E. CN 8 & 9
The origins of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius muscle are the:
A. lateral condyle and posterior surface of the femur
B. patellar surface and anterior surface of the femur
C. patellar surface and posterior surface of the femur
D. medial condyle and posterior surface of the femur
What would the Medical Information Bureau (MIB) identify?
A. Risk classification with other carriers
B. Credit scores
C. Primary physician
D. Testing positive for marijuana use from a previous screening
Which route of administration is considered the safest route for a vesicant drug or solution?
A. Via a central venous access device
B. Via a peripheral venous access device
What is the difference between confidentiality and privacy in regard to healthcare?
When does an IV device dressing need changing and the skin decontaminating?
Choose one or more options, then select submit.
A. When the dressing is not intact
B. When the patient has got the dressing wet
C. Every 24 hours
D. Every 72 hours
E. Every 7 days
F. Every 2 weeks
Joe had a cannula in the back of his hand. He is complaining of pain, and erythema is present around the insertion site. There are two more doses of IV therapy prescribed. What is the VIP score, and what action would you take?
Choose the correct option, then select submit.
A. The VIPS is 0 and leave cannula in situ.
B. The VIPS is 1 and leave cannula in situ.
C. The VIPS is 2 and leave the cannula in situ as there are only two more doses.
D. The VIPS is 2 and the cannula must be removed and replaced if the patient cannot be stepped down to oral therapy.
E. The VIPS is 3 and the cannula should be removed.
Read the following and answer the question below.
A child with an intellectual disability typically has an IQ under what number?
A. 50
B. 20
C. 70
D. 30
- What is a primary benefit of restorative nursing programs?
A. Improve functional ability and prevent functional decline
B. Replace formalized therapy
C. Complete ADLs to maintain dependence
D. Save time on providing care
- What element of the restorative program should be documented daily?
A. The reason the resident is on the restorative program
B. The goals of the restorative program
C. Total number of restorative nursing care minutes provided
D. If the resident has improved or not
- A) Improve functional ability and prevent functional decline
- C) Total number of restorative nursing care minutes provided
Using Young's Rule, what is the pediatric dose for an 8-year-old child if the adult dose is 250 mg?
A. 50 mg
B. 75 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 125 mg
C) 100 mg
Using Fried's Rule, what is the pediatric dose for a 24-month-old child if the adult dose is 500 mg?
A. 80 mg
B. 100 mg
C. 120 mg
D. 150 mg
B. 100 mg
Which is a symptom of lithium toxicity?
A. Diarrhea
B. Dry mouth
C. Increased appetite
D. Elevated mood
A. Diarrhea
Which type of psychiatric medication can cause a dangerous spike in blood pressure if foods containing tyramine are consumed?
A. SSRIs
B. MAOIs
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Anticonvulsants
B) MAOIs
Which of the following is a serious side effect of benzodiazepine use that must be monitored closely?
A. Dependency
B. Weight gain
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Dry mouth
A) Dependency
Which of the following medications is categorized as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Lithium
C. Haloperidol
D. Buspirone
A. Fluoxetine
How can paraprofessionals help clients with their medication regimen?
A. Adjust the client's medication if they experience side effects.
B. Provide emotional support and report any concerns to the prescriber.
C. Diagnose the client's symptoms and recommend treatment changes.
D. Allow the client to skip doses if they feel fine.
B) Provide emotional support and report any concerns to the prescriber.
Which is a second-generation antipsychotic medication?
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Aripiprazole
D. Perphenazine
C) Aripiprazole
What is a potentially permanent side effect of antipsychotic medications that requires immediate reporting?
A. Weight gain
B. Dry mouth
Tardive dyskinesia
Fatigue
C) Tardive dyskinesia
What should a paraprofessional do if they notice a client experiencing confusion and muscle stiffness after starting a new antidepressant medication?
A. Stop the medication immediately.
B. Inform the client that it is a normal side effect.
C. Ignore the symptoms and observe further.
D. Report it as a possible sign of serotonin syndrome.
D) Report it as a possible sign of serotonin syndrome.
Exam: Medical Conditions Associated with Mental Illness
Which of these modifiable risk factors would likely have the greatest impact on increasing life span?
Physical activity
Nutrition
Smoking
A) Smoking
Impairment in executive functioning may contribute to difficulty accessing adequate physical healthcare related to:
A. Difficulty making appointments
B. Difficulty planning transportation and arriving on time for appointments
C. Difficulty adhering to treatment recommendations
D. All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of the following is a complex disorder consisting of multiple risk factors that promotes cardiovascular disease and overall mortality and morbidity:
A. Obesity Syndrome
B. Metabolic Syndrome
C. Diabetes
D. None of the above
B) Metabolic Syndrome
A nurse is monitoring a premature neonate for development of neonatal sepsis. Which assessment finding is an early sign of neonatal sepsis?
A. gastric retention
B. temperature instability
C. hypotension
D. blood in the stool
B. temperature instability
What is a main disadvantage of requiring the medical examiner to certify death and supervise removal of the body at a roadway incident?
A. The medical examiner can be liable for any response activity that takes place until s/he arrives.
B. Waiting for the medical examiner to arrive decreases the likelihood that the vehicles will remain in "as found" condition.
C. Waiting for the medical examiner to respond can greatly lengthen the clearance time, and thereby expose responders and motorists to secondary incident hazards for a longer period of time.
D. All of the above
D) All of the above
The nurse assesses a child with celiac disease. The nurse would most likely note which physical finding?
A. protuberant abdomen
B. periorbital edema
C. tender inguinal lymph nodes
D. enlarged liver
A) protuberant abdomen
A nurse assesses a client who is 16 days postpartum. The nurse finds that the client's left nipple is cracked and bleeding slightly. The left breast is sore to touch and an area under the breast is firm, painful, and red. The client is also experiencing chills. What is likely causing this breastfeeding problem?
A. plugged breast duct
B. mastitis
C. thrush infection
D. engorgement
B. mastitis
The nurse obtains the nursing history from the parent of an infant with suspected intussusception. Which question would be most helpful for the nurse to ask?
A. "What do the stools look like?"
B. "Is your child eating normally?"
C. "When was the last time your child urinated?"
D. "Has your child had any episodes of vomiting?"
A. "What do the stools look like?"
E 1
24 Absent gag reflex indicates damage to which of the cranial nerves
A. CN 5 & 7
B. CN 7 & 9
C. CN 4 & 5
D. CN 9 & 10
E. CN 8 & 9
D) CN 9 & 10
The origins of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius muscle are the:
A. lateral condyle and posterior surface of the femur
B. patellar surface and anterior surface of the femur
C. patellar surface and posterior surface of the femur
D. medial condyle and posterior surface of the femur
A) lateral condyle and posterior surface of the femur
What would the Medical Information Bureau (MIB) identify?
A. Risk classification with other carriers
B. Credit scores
C. Primary physician
D. Testing positive for marijuana use from a previous screening
A) Risk classification with other carriers
Which route of administration is considered the safest route for a vesicant drug or solution?
A. Via a central venous access device
B. Via a peripheral venous access device
A. Via a central venous access device
What is the difference between confidentiality and privacy in regard to healthcare?
A) Confidentiality is about protecting patient information shared with healthcare providers, while privacy is about the patient's right to control access to their personal information.
When does an IV device dressing need changing and the skin decontaminating?
Choose one or more options, then select submit.
A. When the dressing is not intact
B. When the patient has got the dressing wet
C. Every 24 hours
D. Every 72 hours
E. Every 7 days
F. Every 2 weeks
A) When the dressing is not intact B) When the patient has got the dressing wet D) Every 72 hours
Joe had a cannula in the back of his hand. He is complaining of pain, and erythema is present around the insertion site. There are two more doses of IV therapy prescribed. What is the VIP score, and what action would you take?
Choose the correct option, then select submit.
A. The VIPS is 0 and leave cannula in situ.
B. The VIPS is 1 and leave cannula in situ.
C. The VIPS is 2 and leave the cannula in situ as there are only two more doses.
D. The VIPS is 2 and the cannula must be removed and replaced if the patient cannot be stepped down to oral therapy.
E. The VIPS is 3 and the cannula should be removed.
D. The VIPS is 2 and the cannula must be removed and replaced if the patient cannot be stepped down to oral therapy.
Read the following and answer the question below.
A child with an intellectual disability typically has an IQ under what number?
A. 50
B. 20
C. 70
D. 30
C) 70
